Question 11 of 19
(demo test)

Product Demo for Ophthalmology Questions

A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of decreased vision in the left eye for the past one week. His visual acuity OS is 20/100. There is no afferent pupillary defect. His anterior segment exam is completely normal. His dilated fundus exam is shown above along with a corresponding OCT. According to the CRUISE study, which of the following is the recommended initial treatment?

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